Your Quiz

Statement 1 is correct.

Land is a State subject under the State List of the Seventh Schedule, whereas registration of deeds is placed in the Concurrent List. This dual arrangement allows both the Union and States to legislate on registration, while land administration remains primarily with States.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Registration under the Registration Act, 1908 does not provide conclusive proof of ownership. India follows a presumptive title system, where registration only records a transaction and does not guarantee ownership. Title can still be challenged in courts.

Statement 3 is correct.

The Supreme Court, particularly in cases like Samiullah v State of Bihar (2025), has highlighted the need for conclusive land titling supported by digital technologies to reduce land disputes and improve certainty of ownership.

Correct answer: 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct.

The Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025 bring into effect and operationalise the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 by laying down procedures, timelines, and compliance requirements.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Consent Managers must be companies incorporated in India. The Rules do not allow foreign entities, even if they have offices in India, to act as Consent Managers.

Statement 3 is correct.

Significant Data Fiduciaries are subject to enhanced obligations, including conducting periodic Data Protection Impact Assessments and independent audits to ensure responsible data processing.

Correct answer: 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct.

Articles 323A and 323B, which provide for the establishment of administrative and other tribunals, were inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Appeals from tribunals do not always lie directly with the Supreme Court. In many cases, appeals go to the respective High Courts, as clarified by the Supreme Court in the Chandan Kumar case (2017).

Statement 3 is correct.

The Supreme Court has directed the Union Government to establish a National Tribunal Commission to ensure independence, uniformity, and better administration of tribunals.

Correct answer: 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct.

India consistently advocates universal, non-discriminatory, and verifiable nuclear disarmament, applying equally to all nations.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

India is not a signatory to the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty or the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty, as it considers these treaties discriminatory and inconsistent with its security interests.

Statement 3 is correct.

India proposed a phased nuclear disarmament action plan at the United Nations General Assembly in 1988, commonly known as the Rajiv Gandhi Action Plan.

Correct answer: 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 is correct.

The G20 Summit 2025 held in Johannesburg was the first G20 summit hosted on African soil, marking greater representation of the Global South.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

The G20 Critical Minerals Framework is voluntary and non-binding. G20 decisions generally rely on consensus and do not have legal enforceability.

Statement 3 is correct.

The Johannesburg Declaration reaffirmed the commitment to triple global renewable energy capacity by 2030 and to accelerate energy efficiency improvements.

Correct answer: a) 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 is correct.

The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first legislative intervention by the British Parliament to regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India. Before this Act, the Company functioned with minimal parliamentary oversight.

Statement 2 is correct.

The Act created an Executive Council of four members to assist the Governor General of Bengal. Decisions were to be taken collectively, thereby introducing collective decision-making and reducing arbitrary authority of the Governor General.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

The Act subordinated the Presidencies of Bombay and Madras to the Governor General of Bengal, not to the British Crown directly. Direct Crown control came later under the Government of India Act, 1858.

Correct answer: a) 1 and 2 only

Charter Act of 1813

Statement 1 is correct.

The Charter Act of 1813 explicitly asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over Indian territories, even though administration continued through the Company.

Statement 2 is correct.

The Act allowed Christian missionaries to enter India and engage in educational and religious activities, ending the Company’s earlier policy of non-interference.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

The Act ended the Company’s trade monopoly except for trade in tea and trade with China. Monopoly over tea was abolished later by the Charter Act of 1833.

Correct answer: a) 1 and 2 only

Government of India Act, 1919

Statement 1 is correct.

The Act introduced dyarchy in provinces, dividing subjects into:

• Reserved subjects administered by the Governor and executive council
• Transferred subjects administered by Indian ministers responsible to the legislature

Statement 2 is correct.

The Central Legislative Assembly under this Act had partially elected members, marking the beginning of direct elections at the central level.

Statement 3 is incorrect.

Bicameralism was introduced only at the Centre, not in provinces. Provincial legislatures remained unicameral.

Correct answer: d) 1, 2 and 3

Government of India Act, 1935Statement 1 is correct.

The Act proposed an All-India Federation consisting of:

• British Indian provinces
• Princely states (voluntary participation)

However, the federation never came into effect due to non-participation of princely states.

Statement 2 is correct.

The Act introduced dyarchy at the Centre, dividing subjects into federal and reserved categories, while dyarchy was abolished in provinces.

Statement 3 is correct.

The Act granted provincial autonomy in theory, removing executive control of the Governor General over provincial administration, although Governors retained discretionary powers.